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I read the column published by Dr Thio Li-ann here, and I wish to comment on the issues raised.
A False Dichotomy
Dr Thio begins the column by setting up "theocracy" and "atheistic systems" as opposite extremes along a spectrum of secularity. She notes that neither extreme is desirable in multi-religious societies.There are two points to be addressed here. Firstly, she contends that the extremes are undesirable "in societies where people are of many religions". This implies that they would be acceptable of all people are of the same religion, or if all people are atheist. Secondly, she presents communist regimes as examples of atheistic systems practicing "secular fundamentalism".
The latter assertion betrays a superficial understanding of history and politics. Marx may have proclaimed religion to be the opiate of the masses, but to label communist regimes as "secular fundamentalist" would be to ignore the fact that these regimes are typically driven by cults of personality. Maoism, Stalinism, Leninism and their various counterparts would be more appropriately described as "godless religions".
Rather than an outright ban, the usual practice was to restrict and control the activities of organised religion. That would have hardly been an indication of "secular fundamentalism". Furthermore, the primary reason behind such restrictions was due more to realpolitik than any desire to adhere to Marxist ideals. Organised religion represented a threat to the power of the rulers, and therefore were not allowed to function independent of government approval. The various Orthodox churches behind the Iron Curtain were allowed to operate as long as they toed the official line.
It is interesting that Dr Thio chose to imply guilt by associating atheism with communism. Since communist regimes have inflicted horrors on their people, and they were supposed to be atheist, therefore atheism must also be bad. This approach however, only serves to underscore how unpersuasive her argument is.
Curiously, the extremes were described as undesirable only if a given society was multi-religious. The question however, is how many societies do we know of which are mono-religious? Should it not be that either extreme is undesirable regardless of circumstance, due to its oppressive effect on the freedom to have a religion or not have a religion?
I submit that Dr Thio's characterisation of the extremes is inaccurate. The issue in question is not about religion or secularity, but a distinction between elevating religious beliefs to having the force of law, and restricting religious faith to that of personal applicability.
The Inheritance
Dr Thio is not wrong when she says that religion has a part to play in shaping the contours of public policy. It is certainly not the case that those of us who advocate the separation of religion and state in Singapore would wish to banish religion entirely from the public sphere.
Indeed, the foundations of secular humanism and various atheist systems of thought are intellectual and moral descendants of the Judaeo-Christian tradition. Concepts such as free will, human rights, reason, logic and the scientific method had their roots in the European Renaissance. For good or ill, religion is the primary force shaping societal norms of what is right and wrong in most parts of the world.
Unfortunately, Dr Thio's brand of "moral conservatism" represents the worst instincts of that tradition, the authoritarian, the fascist, the totalitarian, the desire to control and oppress anything that does not conform to dogma. The Crusades, the Inquisition, Salem witch trials, abortion clinic bombings and 9-11 are but just a few examples. When religion is held to be beyond criticism or review, it is all too easy for fallible humans to hijack its institutions in pursuit of non-religious goals.
Law and secularism
Where the monotheistic religions hold themselves to be immutable truths to the exclusion of all others, the "secular framework" envisioned by Dr Thio is but a politically correct way of saying "I believe my religion is better than yours, but I won't say it in public to avoid conflict". This attitude is hypocritical at best, and at its worst, is an exercise in moral relativism.
For the above reasons, a secular legal system is, and has to be, more than a mere "framework to promote the co-existence of different religions and belief systems". It is a guarantee to all people, regardless of religious or not, that they are allowed to live their lives free from the coercion of any one religion. Surely it cannot be fair or just to bind people to rules from a religion of which they are not a part?
Dr Thio states that religious and secular values MAY overlap, in cases such as murder, but she does not state why. Implicit in her argument is that the secular perspective is immoral, or amoral at best, when nothing can be further from the truth. There are moral principles which are universal to all humans, and which transcend individual religions.
An objective morality
Morality is objective and universal. The reason why we condemn murder is because a person's life has been taken without their consent. We prohibit theft because a person's property has been taken without their consent. We forbid fraudulent acts because people who are mislead are not able to give meaningful consent. We punish rapists because they infringe on the life and body of another without their consent.
These social norms have arisen out of thousands of years of human interaction, thus a secular perspective of the law is no less founded on the wisdom of human tradition. What we know as "law" is but an implementation of these social norms into formal rules, to be enforced with the threat of violence against those who infringe on these rules.
Thus the fundamental reason for the existence of government is this: governments have a monopoly on the use of coercive power to enforce legal rules, in order that they may protect the will of individuals from being subverted by others. In return, government power is, and should be, confined for that purpose.
Pragmatic rule-making
There is no doubt that our government is pragmatic in its approach to the law. The reason behind the decision not to repeal s 377a has less to do with "conservatism" of any sort, and more to do with horse-trading. We leave the law untouched, and these self-styled "conservatives" will in turn keep quiet about other more important issues such as the casino, abortion and the death penalty.
Given that homosexuals are unlikely to have much influence, if any at all, on the outcome of elections, it is understandable why the government has chosen this route. What is unacceptable is for these "conservatives" to pretend that their position is morally consistent, when in fact they are merely aiming for the softest targets who have no voice in policy-making.


Comments (11)
Hi Han
Sorry I couldn't get back to you earlier. I'll post comments as I go along.
I agree with you that Thio sets up a false dichotomy, but not for exactly the reason you stated. This is what she said:
You seems to be disagreeing with her on the issue of the 'atheist-ness' of the communist regimes--an issue of political history. Actually, the mistake as I see it is more conceptual rather than historical.
One would have thought that a separation between state and religion occurs just in case the state does not have authority to decide on (and base policy upon) religious matters qua religious matters.
Even if it is true that the communist regimes uphold some sort of 'secular fundamentalism' (the historians of these regimes will have to tell us)--in fact, especially if what Thio said were correct--it would be wrong to call them examples of the "strict separation of state and religion". By her own recounting, these regimes are based upon the doctrine that god does not exist--a doctrine about which no state built upon liberal principles will find itself competent to pass judgment either way insofar as it passes judgment upon the matter qua religion.
(I'll continue reading...)
Posted by Huichieh
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December 3, 2007 9:16 PM
(con't)
re: the sections "The Inheritance" and "Law and secularism".
I was a bit surprised at your remarks since her "moral conservatism" wasn't obvious from the article itself. The notion of neutrality, however appears to play a big role. (That's not to say that I am satisfied with the way she puts the matter--but it's also possible that ST messed up the editing.)
In any case, her point that "religious and secular values may overlap" is neither here nor there. If we are serious about this "framework to promote the co-existence of different religions and belief systems, towards which the government is neutral and even-handed" then the mere fact that value X happens also to be grounded in some religious doctrine or other does not in itself make X better or worse as something upon which the laws can be based. Whether or not X is the right sort of thing upon which the laws can be based will, presumably depend upon whether there are reasons ("public reasons") that can in principle be appreciated by people from different religions and belief systems, or no religion at all.
Posted by Huichieh
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December 3, 2007 9:45 PM
Hi Huichieh,
Thank you for your comments.
"Separation of religion and state"
Yes, you are right, I did not realise this, thank you for pointing it out to me. =) Oppression and control of religion is certainly not a 'strict separation of religion and state'.
If we take the US model as an example, the Framers of their Constitution wanted a separation of religion and state, not out of any desire to prevent religion from encroaching on public life, but rather the other way round. They wanted to prevent government from controlling religious affairs. A true separation of religion and state would require a fence that cuts both ways: the state being constrained from interfering with religious affairs and vice versa.
"Moral conservatism"
I have to admit upon re-reading what I wrote, I had perhaps let her other expressed views outside of that article itself colour my reading of what she wrote.
"Overlap of religious and secular values"
I suspect that Dr Thio tried to ground her argument with this statement:
'All views, whether religious and secular or a hybrid, should be welcomed in openly debating morally controversial questions, each assessed on its merits. The persuasiveness of any view turns on its cogency.'
Since the law applies to ALL people, regardless of belief, it cannot, and should not be, a matter of 'if the majority are religious and the minority is not, then the minority can just go to hell and let us make laws based on the religious preference of the majority'.
I believe that the only way any government can be neutral and even-handed towards all people, regardless of religious or not, is to actually discount the views of specific religions, and look towards universal values.
Posted by Han | December 3, 2007 10:32 PM
On the last point about "overlap"--I guess a lot will (as usual) depend on what she exactly meant and what exactly you mean...
Take the bit from her that you quoted. If the "merits" or "cogency" of a view--"whether religious and secular or a hybrid"--is intended to be suitably neutral, then she will be stating a version of your own position. That is, for all we care, the view might well be (from the perspective of the person holding it) grounded in God's Law, or the thesis that there is no God; but any assessment of the view consistent with neutrality will have to set those connections aside as so many distractions. Seen from this perspective, a view that was originally grounded in a specific religious doctrine might well be such that it can be appreciated by people of other religions or people of no religion because suitably neutral grounds for that view exist (or it might not). And vice versa. It all depends on the possibility of those neutral grounds that determine the "merits" and "cogency" of the view under question.
Likewise your own statement--"discount the views of specific religions, and look towards universal values". I'm quite sure you don't mean "discount the views of religious people". Or for that matter, "discount views that happened to be grounded in specific religions" (for instance, an injunction against murder does happened to be grounded in the Decalogue). Rather, I suppose you mean something like: "discount views that are grounded only in specific religions". The implied contrast is presumably: "accept views only if there are good neutral (perhaps what you mean by "universal") reasons for them".
The example of the Framers is a good one.
Posted by Huichieh
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December 3, 2007 11:13 PM
Just thought the below link 'relevant'
From NYTimes Blog : http://fish.blogs.nytimes.com/2007/12/02/monkey-business/
Posted by Teh Si | December 4, 2007 8:29 AM
Han,
A very interesting article. I too disagree with issue of the 'atheist-ness' of the communist regimes as Thio has proposed. In addition, the notion of communism is not problematized (granted that this was a short article but still!) The empirical evidences suggest otherwise. For example, in recent years, tens of thousands of high officials in the CCP have been found to be ardent Falungong members, which frightened the leadership enough to purge these members.
Latest research by historians of the Cultural Revolution have been busting numerous historical myths - mainly the one that the state and its agents were so fanatical about the C.R. that they destroyed artifacts and anything associated with religion (from Confucianism to Buddhism). Joseph Esherick Paul G. Pickowicz, and Andrew G. Walder (eds)(2006) have argued in their volume on "The Chinese Cultural Revolution as History" with recently open archival materials that in fact, many of these artifacts, idols, statues, precious religious manucripts were not destroyed by the Red Guards but hidden away. Many were hidden away by officials even as they denounced these materials! Much of the materials in Qufu were even hidden at the local Communist Party Headquarters! Some were hidden in local ovens, communal rice baskets etc. So I don't know if the everyday experience of the Chinese even at the height of "atheist movements" had experienced complete atheism. When I was in China last summer, it was interesting that the catalogue were being prepared for this period of C.R. across archives in China from the national level to the county level, so that's much potential for research between religion and politics.
Moving on, I attended a Church service last week and the pastor was talking about world problems caused by social problems today. He called abortionist "murderers", condemned prostitution, telling single mothers to repent of their previous sins and to embrace God now and implicitly argued that homosexuality is a choice and they [the lobby] are very powerful now. I was speechless at the lack of nuances, very unhappy that many people laughed at his examples of transgender people and wonder why he did not mention that the root of many of these problems were not simply moral but economic and sociological. In addition, how do single mothers cause world problems by their existence? He is entitled to his views (he didn't quote any verses from the bible at that time which was troubling for me) but I had to leave because I didn't agree with the lack of nuances in the message.
Posted by Wayne | December 5, 2007 8:18 AM
Wayne,
Thank you, I'm glad you found the post interesting.
My personal experience with people who express a kind of prejudice or even hatred against those who they disagree with is that they usually try to justify their innate prejudices by invoking some external authority.
Of course, I may not agree with what they think or say, but I would defend their right to think or say whatever they want. Where I draw the line however, is when they attempt to legislate their opinions into law. This is an example of "hijack".
I've never believed that religion itself is a problem. The real problem is when fallible humans cloak themselves with the authority of religion for their own purposes.
Posted by Han | December 5, 2007 1:59 PM
On a related note, I just found a very interesting post comparing Communism to other religions. Here:
http://www.overcomingbias.com/2007/12/supercritical-u.html
The most interesting section for me was:
'Communism was a complex catastrophe, and there may be no single why, no single critical link in the chain of causality. But if I had to suggest an ur-mistake, it would be... well, I'll let God say it for me:
"If your brother, the son of your father or of your mother, or your son or daughter, or the spouse whom you embrace, or your most intimate friend, tries to secretly seduce you, saying, 'Let us go and serve other gods,' unknown to you or your ancestors before you, gods of the peoples surrounding you, whether near you or far away, anywhere throughout the world, you must not consent, you must not listen to him; you must show him no pity, you must not spare him or conceal his guilt. No, you must kill him, your hand must strike the first blow in putting him to death and the hands of the rest of the people following. You must stone him to death, since he has tried to divert you from Yahweh your God." (Deuteronomy 13:7-11, emphasis added)
This was likewise the rule which Stalin set for Communism, and Hitler for Nazism: if your brother tries to tell you why Marx is wrong, if your son tries to tell you the Jews are not planning world conquest, then do not debate him or set forth your own evidence; do not perform replicable experiments or examine history; but turn him in at once to the secret police.'
Posted by Han | December 5, 2007 2:03 PM
On a side note, one can also imagine theocracy and Atheist systems co-existing together so to say that one is left and the other is right is a bit off. There are for example, Christian Atheists (http://www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/atheism/types/christianatheism.shtml)
Posted by Teh Si | December 5, 2007 3:12 PM
"The reason why we condemn murder is because a person's life has been taken without their consent. We prohibit theft because a person's property has been taken without their consent. We forbid fraudulent acts because people who are mislead are not able to give meaningful consent. We punish rapists because they infringe on the life and body of another without their consent."
Speak for yourself.
We don't condemn killing when the consent of the victim is sought prior to the act?
Is consent vitiated by duress?
Did you draft the penal code? I just happen to live here.
Posted by Tal | January 8, 2008 10:56 PM
Tal:
How can it be consent if there was duress? I speak of the individuals will, which means consent must be freely and voluntarily given.
Can you think of a scenario in which you approach a random stranger and ask to kill him or her, and they say yes? Is that realistic?
Let us imagine another scenario. A person does not want to live any longer. They wish to die. For some reason or another, they are disabled from finishing themselves off. They approach you for help. Would you say yes?
At this point, you receive further facts. The person wishes to die because they have a terminal illness. They see no point in prolonging the pain, and dragging their families into financial ruin. They are lucid, logical and they have explored all possible options. They still choose to die. They ask you for help. Would you say yes?
Further facts. The person now tells you that they are in intolerable pain. Every single day, they feel like killing themself. However, that person is unable to move at all. They can only scream in pain, sometimes even silently, as they are unable to speak at times. They beg you for help. Would you say yes?
The progressive scenario is meant for you to consider your moral position. Ask yourself this question: who does your body belong to? Does the state have the right to tell you what you can or cannot do with your body?
If you wish the government to tell you what you can or cannot do with yourself, then speak for yourself. Do not involve the rest of us with your desire for paternalistic nannying.
Posted by Han | January 9, 2008 1:43 AM